Đề cương ôn tập học kì II Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2023-2024 - Trường THCS Thái Sơn

TRƯỜNG THCS THÁI SƠN ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP HỌC KÌ II MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024 Name: ................................................Class:.................. PHẦN 1: LÝ THUYẾT UNIT 7 1. A/An/Some/Any A/An Some Any A An Cách - Đứng trước danh từ - Đứng trước danh từ - Đứng trước danh - Đứng trước dùng đếm được số ít đếm được số ít bắt từ số nhiều đếm danh từ số - Dùng trong các đầu là các nguyên âm được và không nhiều đếm thành ngữ chỉ số (u, e, o, a, i) đếm được được và không lượng nhất - Trước các danh - Dùng some trong đếm được định. E.g: a lot of, a từ bắt đầu bằng câu khẳng định, - Dùng some couple, v.v âm “h” câm. VD: lời mời với trong câu phủ an hour. “Would you định và nghi vấn like ?” Ví dụ a cook, a university an apple, an hour Some cats, Some There wasn’t oceans any milk. Would you like some coffee? Chú ý - Ta dùng a trước một số danh từ bắt đầu bằng chữ cái nguyên âm “u, eu”. Trong đó, "u" được phiên âm là /juː/ và "eu" được phiên âm là /jʊə/. 2. Food quantifiers a teaspoon of a teaspoon of honey a pitcher of a pitcher of tea (một thìa cà phê) (một thìa cà phê mật ong) (một bình) (một bình trà) a pinch of a pinch of salt a packet of a packet of biscuits (một nhúm) (một nhúm muối) (một gói nhỏ) (một gói bánh quy nhỏ) a tablespoon of a tablespoon of sugar a head of a head of broccoli (một thìa canh) (một thìa canh đường) (một củ, một cái, một (một cây súp lơ) cây) a handful of a handful of rice a plate of a plate of vegetables (một nắm đầy) (một nắm đầy gạo) (một đĩa) (một đĩa rau) a bottle of a bottle of water a slice of a slice of lemon (một chai) (một chai nước) (một lát) (một lát chanh) a loaf of a loaf of bread a bar of a bar of chocolate (một ổ) (một ổ bánh mì) (một thanh) (một thanh sô cô la) a bowl of a bowl of soup a clove of a clove of garlic (một tô) (một tô súp) (một tép, một nhánh) (một tép tỏi) a stick of a stick of celery a tube of a tube of mustard (một cây, một (một cây cần tây) (một tuýp) (một tuýp mù tạt) cọng) a bag of a bag of chips a carton of a carton of juice (một túi) (một túi khoai tây lát) (một hộp bằng bìa (một hộp nước hoa quả) cứng) a pack of a pack of gum a jar of a jar of jam (một gói, một bịch, (một phong kẹo cao su) (một lọ, một bình, một (một hũ mứt) một phong) hũ) a tin of a tin of soup a cube of a cube of ice (một hộp thiếc) (một hộp thiếc súp) (một khối) (một khối đá lạnh) 3. Câu điều kiện loại 1 Cách dùng Một số động từ khuyết thiếu (modal verbs) thường dùng trong câu điều kiện loại 1 là: can (có thể), must (phải, bắt buộc), may (có lẽ), hoặc should (nên), have to (phải) Cấu trúc If + S1 + V1(s, es), S2 + will/can/may/must/should/have to + V2(infinitive) Ví dụ If she tries hard, she can cook very well. (Nếu cô ấy cố gắng, cô ấy có thể nấu ăn rất giỏi. ) If you want your spring rolls crisp, you must deep-fry them. (Nếu cậu muốn món nem của cậu giòn tan, cậu phải rán ngập mỡ chúng.) Their mother might be surprised if they make her a birthday cake. (Mẹ của các bạn ấy có thể sẽ bất ngờ nếu các bạn ấy làm cho mẹ một chiếc bánh sinh nhật.) If you want to keep fit, you shouldn’t eat too much candy. (Nếu cậu muốn giữ dáng, cậu không nên ăn quá nhiều kẹo.) UNIT 8 1. Cách dùng mạo từ The Mạo từ xác định “The” đề cập tới đối tượng mà cả người nói lẫn người nghe đều biết. Cách dùng Ví dụ The + N chỉ đối tượng được coi là duy nhất. VD: The mon, the sun, v.v . The + từ chỉ thứ tự. VD : the first, the last, v.v . The + Liên Bang, Hợp chúng quốc, quần VD : the US, the UK, etc. đảo. The + N chỉ chức vụ hay tước hiệu mà VD : the Queen, the King, v.v . KHÔNG có tên riêng đi kèm. The + Adj chỉ tính cách đặc điểm khi nói tới E.g: the mean, the old, v.v . nhóm người The + Tên nhạc cụ. VD : the piano, the guitar, etc. The + N chỉ tên riêng của dãy núi, đại VD: London is on the Themse. dương, hồ, sông mà KHÔNG có N chỉ các đối tượng đi kèm The + N số ít khi nói đến cả một thể loại VD :the rose = roses. The + N chỉ phương hướng VD: the West, the East, etc. UNIT 9 1. Conditional sentence type 2 (Câu điều kiện loại 2) Câu điều kiện loại 2 Cách dùng - Diễn tả điều kiện, giả thuyết không thể xảy ra ở hiện tại hoặc trái với thực tế Cấu trúc If + S + V(simple past), S + would/ could/ might + bare inf Ví dụ If I won a lot of money, I could spend most of it travelling round the world. (but I don't win a lot of money, so I can't spend most of it travelling round the world.) Chú ý - To be: chia "Were" cho tất cả các ngôi 2. Relative clause (Mệnh đề quan hệ) a. Đại từ quan hệ - Mệnh đề quan hệ được dùng để bổ nghĩa cho danh từ đứng ngay trước nó. Mệnh đề quan hệ thường bắt đầu bằng các đại từ quan hệ (who, whom, which, whose, that) và các trạng từ quan hệ (where, when, why) Thay thế Vị trí Ví dụ cho Who Người Chủ ngữ hoặc Ex: - I need to meet the boy. The boy is my friend’s tân ngữ son. → I need to meet the boy who is my friend’s son. Whom Người Tân ngữ Ex:- I know the girl. I spoke to this girl. → I know the girl who/ whom I spoke to. Which Vật Chủ ngữ hoặc Ex: - She works for a company. It makes cars tân ngữ → She works for a company which makes cars. - The elephants are big. People keep the elephants in iron cages. → The elephants which people keep in iron cages are big. That Người và Chủ ngữ và tân * Những trường hợp thường dùng THAT: vật ngữ trong - Sau cụm từ quan hệ vừa chỉ người và vật: MĐQH hạn định Ex: He told me the places and people that he (không có dấu had seen in London. phẩy) - Sau đại từ bất định: something, aynyone, nobody, all, much .... Ex: I’ll tell you something that is very interesting. All that is mine is yours. - Sau các tính từ so sánh nhất, only, first, last Ex: - This is the most beautiful dress that I have. - You are the only person that can help us. Whose Người và Trước danh từ Ex: - John found the cat. Its leg was broken. = of which vật (chỉ sở → John found the cat whose leg/(the leg of hữu) which) was broken. Where Nơi chốn Trước mệnh đề Ex: - The movie theater is the place. We can see films at that place. → The movie theater is the place where we can see films. When Thời gian Trước mệnh đề Ex: - Do you remember the day. We first met on that day. → Do you remember the day when we first met? Why cụm trạng Trước mệnh đề Ex: - Tell me the reason. You are so sad for that từ chỉ lí do reason. → Tell me the reason why you are so sad. b. Phân loại Mệnh đề quan hệ - Mệnh đề quan hệ xác định: Là mệnh đề dùng để xác định danh từ đứng trước nó, cần thiết cho ý nghĩa của câu; nếu thiếu đi mệnh đề này câu sẽ không đủ nghĩa - Mệnh đề quan hệ không xác định: Là mệnh đề cung cấp thêm thông tin về người hoặc vật, đây là mệnh đề không bắt buộc, nếu không có nó thì câu vẫn đủ ý nghĩa. Mệnh đề quan hệ không xác định có dấu phẩy và mệnh đề này không được dùng “That”. VD: Yen, who is wearing glasses, is my student. - Lưu ý: Dùng MĐQH không xác định khi danh từ là: + Tên riêng: Lan, Peter, Mr Green, ( Lan, who is sitting over there, is my sister.) + Danh từ có các dạng sở hữu: my, his, her, our, their, your . ( His book, which I borrowed yesterday, was interesting.) + Danh từ có các đại từ chỉ định: this, that, these, those, ( Can you give me that book, which is on the table?) UNIT 10 1. Thì quá khứ đơn Thì quá khứ đơn Cách - Diễn tả hành động đã xảy ra và kết thúc trong quá khứ. dùng Cấu trúc Thể Động từ “tobe” Động từ “thường” Khẳng S + V-ed + O định S + was/ were + N/adj Phủ định S + was/were not + N/adj S + did not + V (nguyên thể) + O Nghi vấn Was/Were+ S + + N/adj? Did + S + V(nguyên thể) + O? Ví dụ Yesterday, I won a lot of money. Dấu hiệu Trong câu có các trạng từ chỉ thời gian trong quá khứ: nhận – yesterday (hôm qua) biết – last night/ last week/ last month/ last year: tối qua/ tuần trước/ tháng trước/ năm ngoái – ago: Cách đây. (two hours ago: cách đây 2 giờ/ two weeks ago: cách đây 2 ngày ) – when: khi (trong câu kể). 2. Thì quá khứ hoàn thành Thì quá khứ đơn Cách - Diễn tả hành động xảy ra trước 1 thời điểm trong quá khứ dùng - Diễn tả hành động xảy ra trước 1 hành động khác trong quá khứ Cấu trúc Thể Khẳng S + had + VpII + O định Phủ định S + had not/hadn’t + VpII + O Had + S + VpII? – Yes, S + had Nghi vấn - No, S + hadn’t. Ví dụ Yesterday, I won a lot of money. I was Dấu hiệu Trong câu có các trạng từ chỉ thời gian trong quá khứ: nhận – yesterday (hôm qua) biết – last night/ last week/ last month/ last year: tối qua/ tuần trước/ tháng trước/ năm ngoái – ago: Cách đây. (two hours ago: cách đây 2 giờ/ two weeks ago: cách đây 2 ngày ) – when: khi (trong câu kể). UNIT 12 1. ALTHOUGH/ EVEN THOUGH/ THOUGH Vd: “Although/ even though he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car”. Hoặc: “He refused to buy a new car although/ even though he had enough money”. *) Cấu trúc: Although/ even though/ though + S + V 2. DESPITE/ IN SPITE OF VD: “Despite/ in spite of having enough money/ all his money, he refused to buy a new car”. Hoặc: “He refused to buy a new car despite/ in spite of having enough money/ all his money”. *) Cấu trúc: Despite/ In spite of + Nphrase/ Ving *) Cấu trúc: Despite/ In spite of + the fact that + S + V 3. Gerund and V infinitive I. Gerund (V–ing) A. Verb + V-ing 1. enjoy 2. like 3. dislike 4. hate 5. suggest 6. avoid 7. keep + V-ing 8. finish 9. mind 10. practise 11. stop 12. begin / start B. 13. spend + time / money 14. waste +time / money 15. preposition (in, at, on ) 16. be used to +V-ing 17. get used to 18. look forward to 19. be busy 20. be worth II. To-Infinitive A. Verb + O + (not) + to-inf 1. tell – told 2. ask 3. advise 4. request + Obj + (not) to-inf 5. get-got 6. would like 7. intend B. 8. Wh-question (WHAT, HOW, WHERE ) 9. It is /was + ADJ (trừ busy, worth +V-ing) + To-inf It TAKE / TOOK +Obj + time PHẦN 2: EXERCISES AND SAMPLE TESTS TEST 1 PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM I.  LISTENING (2.0 pts) PART 1. You will hear four short conversations. For each recording, choose the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen to the audio twice. 1. Where does Carl live? A. Number 25. B. Number 40. C. Number 22. 2. Which is Carl's sister? A. The girl wearing sunglasses. B. The girl with short black hair. C. The girl with long hair and glasses. 3. What is Saz's favourite animal? A. Birds. B. Rabbits. C. Horses. 4. How much is the ticket to the dance show? A. £ 2.50 B. £ 4.00 C. £ 6.00 PART 2. You will hear Louis and Rachel talking about their new schools. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, or C. You will hear the conversation twice. 5. What does Louis wear to school? A. Shorts and a T-shirt. B. The school uniform. C. Trousers and a T-shirt. 6. What time is the bus? A. 8:30. B. 8:00. C. 9:00. 7. Rachel’s maths teacher is ______. A. from England B. kind C. old 8. What sport is Louis playing at school now? A. Basketball. B. Tennis. C. Hockey.   THE END OF THE LISTENING   II. Circle the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others. (1.0 pt) 9. A. languages B. countries C. communities D. cities 10. A. confident B. equal C. pattern D. modern 11. A. recently B. celebrate C. comic D. necessary 12. A. home B. post C. role D. world III. Circle the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (3.0 pts) 13. It’s a good idea to listen to English songs to ______ your listening skills. A. read B. practice C. know D. make 14. What scenes on ______ Earth can you see from the outer space? A. the B. an C. a D. one 15. I don’t have ______ sugar for my milk tea. Can you bring me some? A. few B. several C. any D. many 16. Simon: “Would you like to drink more coffee?” - Lucy: “______” A. Yes, I like it. B. Yes, I like you. C. Yes, I’d love to. D. No, I don’t. 17. If we use less paper, we ______ save trees in the forest. A. had B. would C. could D. can 18. Jim: “May I go out for just a while?” - Teacher: “______ A. It’s a nice day. B. That’s great! C. Go ahead. D. Yes, you could. 19. When I was at secondary school, I had many ______ such as: Maths, Science, English, etc. A. exercises B. grades C. subjects D. units 20. We may need a compass when we ______ camping in the mountain this weekend. A. put B. use C. come D. go 21. Remember to turn off the electronic devices when you go out to ______ electricity. A. reuse B. save C. recycle D. produce 22. Her father doesn’t mind ______ the housework. A. doing B. do C. does D. to do 23. We decided to ______ walking although it started to rain. A. go on B. look up C. take off D. turn on 24. Mrs. Giang ______ in China from Monday to Thursday last week. A. being B. will be C. was D. has been IV. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in the gap. (1.0 pt) Water is the source of all life. No plant, animal or human can live without it. Researchers say water is (25)______ for us to live longer. They say people who drink a lot of water every day are healthier (26)______ they live longer than people who do not drink a lot of water. People who drink a lot get fewer health (27)______ and old-age illnesses, like heart and lung disease. Adults who do not drink enough water are more likely to die younger, and to get old quicker. Researchers looked at data from 11,000 hospital patients over 30 years. The patients had visited a hospital at least five times - three times in their 50s, and twice aged (28)______ 70 and 90. A researcher said: “Proper water drinking may slow down ageing and prolong a disease-free life”. People should drink more water, juice, and fruit and vegetables with water in them. Half of people worldwide do not drink enough. An adult needs over 1.5 litres of water every day. 25. A. important B. unimportant C. importantly D. importance 26. A. despite B. although C. but D. and 27. A. questions B. problems C. differences D. puzzles 28. A. from B. in C. between D. on V. Read the passage and choose the correct answers. (1.0 pt) Garbage collectors in the Turkish capital Ankara are recycling the books they find in the trash. They have created a mobile library. The library is full of books that people have thrown away. There are now over 9,000 books on the library's shelves. The library is inside a truck that tours schools in the suburbs of Ankara. The garbage collectors hope to create a greater passion for reading books in children, especially in the age of mobile phones and tablets. Many schools do not have a reading room or their own library. The library has got a lot of attention in Turkey. There is now a campaign for it to grow. People from all over Turkey are sending their unwanted or old books to the garbage collectors. The director of the library said: “The interest is growing. Each day we have guests coming here to borrow books or have a quiet time to read”. A worker at the mobile library said: “We have books here for children aged from six to ten, but also books for older children. We hope that it will amuse them and arouse a passion for books”. Turkey currently has just one public library for every 70,000 people, compared to one for every 6,200 people in the European Union. 29. What is the best title for the passage? A. How to collect new books B. The garbage collectors. C. A mobile library. D. Books for children. 30. Which parts of the city does the mobile library visit? A. The suburbs of Ankara. B. The city centre. C. The Northern parts. D. The Southern parts. 31. What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. The garbage. B. The library. C. The mobile phone. D. The tablet. 32. According to the passage which of the following sentences is NOT TRUE? A. The mobile library is inside a truck. B. Many schools don't have a library. C. The library only has books for children aged from six to ten. D. More and more people are interested in the library. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN VI. Rearrange the words or phrases into meaningful sentences. (0.5 pt) 1. which/ interesting/ we saw/ The film / was / yesterday/.  ________________________________________________________________ 2. on time/ being sick,/ finished / the test/ Despite/ Jenny/.  ______________________________________________________________ VII. Rewrite the sentences beginning with the given words. (0.5 pt) 1. It’s a pity Mrs. White doesn’t have time to visit the museum.  Mrs. White wishes _________________________________________________. 2. The workers painted my office last week.  My office _______________________________________________________. VIII. In about 100 words, write a paragraph about your best friend. (1.0 pt) TEST 2 PHẦN I: TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) SECTION A: Listening (2pts) Part 1: You will hear Eric talking to Mary about the weekend.Listen and mark the letter A, B, or C to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. You will listen to the recording TWICE. (1pt) 1. What does Carlos hate? A. shopping B. museums C. football 2. When is the football match? A. Saturday morning B. Saturday afternoon C. Sunday afternoon 3. Where are they going to eat on Saturday evening? A. at home B. in an Italian restaurant C. in a Chinese restaurant 4. What are they going to do on Sunday morning A. go for a drive B. get up late C. go to the cinema Part 2. You will hear Sarah talking to her friend, Jane, about a new job. Listen carefully and choose the best answer A, B or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. (1pt) 5. Sarah's boss wants a new______. A. manager B. shop assistant C. secretary 6. Sarah usually starts work at______. A. 6.00 B. 8.30 C. 9.00 7. In the new job, Jane can earn______. A. 160 a week B. 180 a week C. 210 a week 8. Sarah has lunch______. A. in a café B.in a bar C. at home SECTION B: Phonetics (1.0 pt) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 9. A. linked B. needed C. washed D. stopped 10. A. cut B. bus C. shut D. full 11. A. balloon B. typhoon C. groom D. blood 12. A. therefore B. earthquake C. health D. bath SECTION C: Grammar and Vocabulary (2.0 pts) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the appropriate answer to each of the following questions. 13. He looks ______ today than yesterday. A. good B. well C. better D. goodly 14. Thuy’s grandmother never misses a single weather forecast on TV, ________? A. does she B. doesn’t she C. has she D. did she 15. The teacher said that we had to learn all these expressions ______ heart. A. on B. with C. by D. in 16. Plastic bags will cause pollution _______ they are very hard to dissolve. A. so B. but C. or D. because 17. - Hoa: “Do you mind if I sit here?” - Lan: “______.” A. Congratulations B. That’s a good idea C. Please do D. No, thanks 18. I would like ______ mountainous areas like Son Dong this summer holiday. A. visit B. to visit C. visiting D. visited 19. Food and medical supplies ______ to the flooded villages recently. A. are delivered B. were delivered C. have been delivered D. delivered 20. I was very______that you failed the exam. A. disappointed B. disappoint C. disappointment D. disappointing SECTION D: Reading comprehension (3.0 pts) Part 1- Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 24. (1.0 pt) Ba Na Hill is one of the most (21)______ Da Nang tours in central Vietnam. It is only 25 kilometers from Da Nang city center to the southwest of Da Nang, where a hill station and resort are (22)______ in the Truong Son mountains in central Vietnam at an altitude of 1,487m. The station, advertised as “the Da Lat of Da Nang province” by local tourism authorities, found in 1919 by French colonists. Ba Na Hill combines with Ling Ung pagoda, (23)______ is situated near the cable car station, to carry tourists to and from the resort. The Ba Na Cable Car, opened (24)______ 29th March 2013 and holds the world record for longest non-stop single-track cable car at 5801 meters in length, travelers come here, to admire the French Village in Ba Na Hills resort; a unique architectural work of ancient French villages. 21. A. attractive B. attract C. attraction D. attractively 22. A. locate B. locating C. located D. to locate 23. A. where B. which C. whom D. that 24. A. to B. from C. in D. on Part 2- Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (from 25 to 28). (2.0 pt) Millions of people around the world like travelling. They travel to see other countries and continents, modern cities and the ruins of ancient towns. They travel to enjoy picturesque places or to learn about other cultures. It’s always interesting to discover new things and different ways of life, to meet different people, to try to different food, to listen to different music. People who live in the countryside often like to go to a big city in order to visit museums and art galleries that they don’t have in their hometown. They like to buy things in shops and to eat out big restaurants. People in big city often like a quiett holiday by the sea or in the mountains where they can sunbathe or walk. Many tourists love taking photographs of everything that interest them – the sights of a city, old churches and castles, views of mountains, lakes, valleys, plains, waterfalls, forests, different kinds of trees, flowers and animals. People travel by train, by plane, by ship or boat and by car. All means of transport have their advantages and disadvantages. The fastest way of travelling – is travelling by plane, but the most comfortable one is travelling by ship and the cheapest one is travelling on foot. 25. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why people enjoy travelling? A. go to see other nations B. learn new things C. meet different people D. like travelling by air 26. People in the countryside like ______. A. going on holiday by the sea B. going climbing for their holidays C. staying at home for decorating the house D. visiting a big city 27. The word “They” in the passage refers to ______. A. people in a big city B. people in the countryside C. art galleries D. museums 28. The most comfortable way to move to another place is travelling ______. A. by ship B. by plane C. on foot D. by car PHẦN II: TỰ LUẬN (2 điểm) Part 1- Rewrite each sentence so that it means as the first one, beginning with the given words. (1.0 pt) 29. “There are some letters for me today,” Bill said.  Bill said_________________________________________________________. 30. My students have just met their friend at the station.  Their friend______________________________________________________. 31. Minh last wrote to his pen pal five months ago.  Minh hasn’t _____________________________________________________. 32. He is busy now, so he can’t help us.  If _____________________________________________________________. Part 2- In about 60-80 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of using smart phones. (1.0 pt) TEST 3 I. LISTENING. (2 pts) Part 1: Listen to a woman talking to a policeman. Choose the appropriate answer A, B or C. You will hear the conversation twice. (1.0 pt) Question 1. Where did the woman lose her bag? A. In town B. on the bus C. at home Question 2. What else was in the bag? A. credit card B. driving licence C. gloves Question 3. The bag was__________. A. old B. big C. expensive Question 4. The woman lost the bag at_________? A. 9.30 B. 10.00 C. 10.30 Part 2. You will hear some information about Finchester Zoo. Listen and complete the questions given. (1.0 pt) FINCHESTER ZOO Closed on: 0. Monday Question 5. Closing time in summer: . p.m. Question 6. Meeting place for tour: .. Question 7. At 2 p.m., see: .. eat their food. Zoo shop sells: BOOKS AND GAMES. Question 8. Child's ticket costs: . pounds. II. PRONUNCIATION - Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1.0 pt) Question 9. A. books B. clubs C. hats D. stamps Question 10. A. beach B. clean C. instead D. leave Question 11. A. eruption B. tradition C. celebration D. suggestion Question 12. A. hoped B. suggested C. polluted D. provided III. GRAMMAR – VOCAB: Circle the best answer to complete each of the following questions. (2.0 pts) Question 13. What ____________ if there were a serious nuclear accident ? A. happens B. will happen C. happened D. would happen Question 14. We are____________when the New Year's Eve is coming very near. A.excitement B. excitedly C. excited D.exciting Question 15. The car____________ he has just bought is very expensive. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose Question 16. - A: “I’ve won an essay contest.” - B: “ _______________”. A. It’s interesting B. Congratulations! C. Oh poor! D. Good! Question 17. How much time do you spend________ the web a day. A. surfing B. going C. traveling D. playing Question 18. She has to__________ her younger brother because her parents go out. A. look at B. look for C. look after D. look up Question 19. My sister told me that she had met her old teacher________ day before. A. a B. the C. an D. Ø Question 20. We have imported _________ computers this year than last year. A. few B. less C. many D. fewer IV. Give the correct tense/ form of the verb in brackets. (1.0 pt). Question 21. Lan must wash the vegetables carefully if she (want) ____________________ to eat them raw. Question 22. Pham Tuan (become) ____________________ the first Vietnamese and Asian in space before he retired in Viet Nam. Question 23. I don’t remember (meet) ___________________ you at the job fair last month. Question 24. The Eiffel Tower, which (build) ______________________ over two hundred years ago, is in Paris, France. V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 pt) It is estimated that about three billion people use the Internet computer network around the world. Most people use the Internet to get information or (25) __________ entertainment. A new study, (26) ___________ , shows US that almost 10% of Internet users are using it so often that it is seriously harming their lives. The study says that these people may find it difficult to stop using the Internet because they have become (27) _________. Someone who is addicted finds it extremely difficult to stop an activity. According to a psychologist in the field. 30% of Internet users claim that they use the Internet to escape from problems or emotions. The study also shows that having a chat or discussion with (28) _________ on the Internet is one of the most additictive activities. Question 25. A. for B. to C. with D. on Question 26. A. therefore B. but C. however D. because Question 27. A. in addictive B. addiction C. additive D. addicted Question 28. A. customers B. strangers C. viewers D. audience VI. READING - Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (l.0 pt) Safety on Foot We've all heard it a thousand times: "Look both ways before you cross the street!" But how many people really obey this simple rule? According to the Federal Highway Administration, about 100,000 pedestrians (people traveling on foot) are hit by cars each year. It is one of the leading causes of accidental death for children. So, how can you be safe when you are walking ? Follow these simple rules offered by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration: • Always walk on the sidewalk. If there is no sidewalk and you have to walk in the street, always walk on the side that allows you to face oncoming traffic. • Wear bright colors. You want drivers to be able to see you. If you must walk at night, be sure to wear reflective clothing or tape so that drivers can see you. • Cross the street only at marked crosswalks or corners, and always stop at the curb before crossing. Look both ways (left, then right, then left again). If you see a car coming, wait for it to pass. Keep looking for cars as you cross. • Walk at a good pace. Never run. Question 29. What is the main idea of this text ? A. Looking both ways before crossing the street is a simple rule. B. You should cross the street only at marked crosswalks or corners, and always stop at the curb before crossing. C. People walking at night should wear reflective clothing or tape so that drivers can see them. D. Many pedestrians are hit by cars each year, but there are steps you can take to protect yourself. Question 30. All of the following are true, EXCEPT ... ? A. About one hundred thousand pedestrians are hit by cars each year B. Wearing bright colors makes it easier for drivers to see you at night C. We've all heard "Look both ways before you cross the street!" a lot . D. Everybody looks both ways before crossing the street. Question 31. What does this text list? A. rules for being safe while walking B. the top five causes of accidental death among children C. the names of all pedestrians hit by cars last year D. the names of the people working at the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration Question 32. What does "It" in the first paragraph refer to? A. the Federal Highway Administration B. being hit by a car C. driving a car D. accidental death VI. Rewrite the sentences with the same meaning, beginning with the given words. (0.5pt) Question 33. The last time I spoke to my sister was 2 years ago. => I haven’t___________________________________________________________. Question 34. The church is over 500 years old. Our class visited it last summer. => The church _________________________________________________________. VII. Rearrange the provided words to make meaningful sentences. (0.5 pt) Question 33. had/ a /If / Susan /she / watch, / late / be / for / wouldn’t / work./ often Question 34. his / health, / In spite of / poor / he / regularly. /still / school / goes / to VIII. PARAGRAPH WRITING: In about 60 to 80 words, write a paragraph about the importance of English in our daily life. (1.0 pt) TEST 4 I. Listening Part 1. Listen to Carlos asking for information about a library. Listen and circle the appropriate answer A, B or C. There is ONE example. (1 pt) Example: 0. The library is closed until ____________. A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday 1. What must Carlos take to the library? A. a student card B. a teacher’s letter C. a passport 2. Carlos will get ___________. A. 2 library tickets B. 3 library tickets C. 4 library tickets 3. On Saturday, the library opens at ____________. A. 10:30 a.m B. 11:00 a.m C. 2:30 p.m 4. The library is in ____________. A. Murdoch Street B. Murdosh Street C. Murdock Street Part 2. Read the question. Listen and write. (1 pt) SHOPPING How many shops? (0)_________5______ Favourite shop: (1) The ______________ shop Where? (2) In ______________ Street Phone number: (3) ________________ Bought: (4) __________ CDs and a hat. II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others (1pt) 1. A. educated B. warned C. performed D. occurred 2. A. volcano B. volume C. solve D. love 3. A. earthquake B. quality C. quantity D. qualify 4. A. books B. students C. pencils D. lakes III. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each following sentence (2,5pts) 1. They made their living by _________fish in the ocean everyday. A. catch B. caught C. to catch D. catching 2. Easter is a joyful festival ________comes in early spring. A. which B. that it C. where D. when 3. Mrs. Thoa is generous to the poor ___________she is not rich. A. although B. but C. however D. and 4. Father’s Day__________a national holiday in America since 1972. A. has been B. was C. is D. will be 5. “You are a great dancer, David!” “Thanks, Lili.__________” A. That’s very nice of you to say so B. I’m an awful dancer C. Let’s have a celebration D. Well done! 6. He is famous for his ________ .He is very helpful to those less fortunate than himself. A. kind B. unkind C. kindly D. kindness 7. Nobody knows who she is,________ ? A. isn’t she B. do they C. don’t they D. doesn’t she 8. He’s very ___________ in scientific subjects. A. interest B. interesting C. interestingly D. interested 9. Please don’t ________ to put stamps on the letter I gave you to post. A. forget B. remind C. realize D. remember 10. Every one of us __________not want to stay there. A. does B. do C. doing D. done IV. Give the correct form of the verb in brackets (1pt) 1. Our children (finish) ________________ their work before I came. 2. Yesterday I was coming home from school when I (see) _______________ an accident. 3. Would you mind If I (turn) ________________ off the lights, please? 4. Traditionally, the ao dai frequently (wear) _______________ by both men and women. V. Fill in each blank in the text with the correct form of the word given below (1pt) location approximate natural wonder tourism beautiful Situated on the central coast of Viet Nam, which is famous for many beautiful beaches, Lang Co Beach, since June 2009, has become an official member of the “World’s most beautiful bays” club. Today, it is a popular destination for (1) _____________ in Viet Nam, especially for those who love beach so much. With the length of (2)_____________ 10 kilometres, Lang Co Beach located in Lang Co town, Phu Loc district, Thua Thien-Hue province is next to the National Highway 1A and near Hai Van Pass. Lying on the most beautiful curve of the countrry, Lang Co has almost everything that the (3) _____________ can offer: green mountains and tropical forests, (4) _____________ white sand, full of sunshine and cool, blue and clear sea as crystal, and the average temperature of 25oC in summer. It is an attractive destination for both national and international tourists in Viet Nam. VI. Read the passage (1pt) Mui Ne is located 24 kilometres northeast of Phan Thiet city. It is a fishing village as well as a familiar tourism area in Binh Thuan province. With lovely scenery of swaying coconut trees, Mui Ne, meaning “sheltered penisula”, is one of the famous and popular holiday destinations in the world with 15-kilometre strip of resorts along the beach. Thanks to the shallow and slopped beaches, the blue and clean water, nice sun rarely behind the clouds and cliffs battered by the waves of the sea, sometimes Mui Ne is considered Hawaii of Viet Nam. The beaches are fantastic with activities such as surfing and kitesurfing. But the most attractive scenery at Mui Ne is moving lines of golden sand which is called “Sand Dunes” by local people. The sand is always moving because of the wind and looks like moving waves from afar and that is the reason why the dunes never look like the same. The scenery is more fascinating at dawn. Mui Ne is really a good wonder for those who are interested in photography. There are also many interesting sites at Mui Ne such as Po Sah Inu Tower, the ancient Cham building that was built in the 8th century, some workshops make fish sauce. Mui Ne market and fishing harbour are also a good chance for discovering daily life of local fishermen. * Choose T/F (0,5pt): 1. Mui Ne is 24 kilometres to the northeast of Phan Thiet city. 2. “Sand Dunes” is one of the most attractive sceneries at Mui Ne. * Answer the questions (0,5pt): 3. When was the ancient Cham building built? 4. Is Mui Ne called Hawaii of Viet Nam? VII. Rewrite each of sentences so that it means the same as the one before it. (0.5 pt) 1. “Why don’t we share the cost of the tour?” said my friend. -> My friend suggested 2. We don’t go on holiday because we do not have enough money. -> If we VIII. Write a paragraph (60-80 words) about an interesting place you know (1pt) TEST 5 I. Choose the word which has the underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (1 pt) 1. A. subject B. deposit C. energy D. prevent 2. A. call B. logical C. mall D. install 3. A. covered B. received C. terrified D. nominated 4. A. honest B. hour C. humor D. honor II. Circle the best answer to complete the sentences. (1,5 pts) 1. The examination will be held .. July 19th, 2015 ? A. on B. in C. at D. to 2.You have read this article on the website , ?. A. don’t you B. aren’t you C. didn’t you D. haven’t you 3. She studies well ........................... she is busy. A. because B. since C. although D. and 4. She doesn’t know the man............sent her this letter. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose 5. If John became rich, he .travel around the world. A. can B. should C. will D. would 6. “My son has passed his final exam!”- “ ..” A. It’s my pleasure B. Best wishes! C. Well done D. That’s very well. III. Give the correct form of the verbs in the blankets. (1 pt) 1. I (not write) _______ any letters since I came here. 2. If today (be) __________ Sunday, we would go picnic. 3. He gave up ( smoke) ________two months ago. 4. What _______you (do) _______last weekend ? IV. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets to complete the sentences. (1 pt) 1. I come from Viet Nam . I don't get used to ___________ on the left. DRIVE 2. I am ____________ in learning English INTEREST 3. She got the__________ from the library. INFORM 4. Jeans are ___________made of cotton. COMPLETE V. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word from the box to complete the passage. (1pt) also beautiful and available are pollution Environmental (1) .. is one of the most serious problems facing mankind today. Air, water and soil (2) . important to the survival of all living things. Badly polluted air can cause illness, and even death. Polluted water kills fish other marine life. Pollution of soil reduce the amount of land that is (3) for growing food. Environmental pollution (4) ..brings the ugliness to man’s naturally beautiful world. VI. Read the passage carefully and then answer the questions. (2 pt) As a result of years of research, we know that too much animal fat is bad for our health. For example, American eat a lot of meat and only a small amount of grains, fruit and vegetables. Because of their diet, they have high rates of cancer and heart disease. In Japan, in contrast, people eat large amounts of grains and very little meat. The Japanese also have low rates of cancer and heart disease. In fact the Japanese live longer than anyone else in the world. Unfortunately, when people move to the US, the rates of heart disease and cancer increase as their diet changes. Moreover, as humburgers, ice-cream, and other high fat food become popular in Japan, the rates of heart disease and cancer are increasing there as well. People are also eating more meat and dairy products in other countries such as Cuba and Hungary. Not surprisingly, the disease rates in these countries are increasing along with the change in diet. Consequently, doctors everywhere advise people to eat more grains, fruit and vegetables and to eat less meat and fewer dairy products. * Questions: 1. Why do American have high rates of cancer and heart disease? 2. Do the Japanese live longer than anyone else in the world? 3. In which countries are people also eating more meat and dairy products? 4. What do doctors everywhere advise people? VII. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Beginning as shown. (1 pt) 1. Mr. Brown was tired, so he didn’t go to the meeting. - Because ______________________________________________________________. 2. People use the Internet as a means of education. - The Internet___________________________________________________________. 3. I’m sorry I can’t swim. - I wish________________________________________________________________. 4. The man is my new boss. He is talking to the lady over there. - The man who ______________________________________________________________. VIII. Rearrange the words or phrases provided to make meaningful sentences (0,5 pt) 1. /he / unless/ Your brother/ will not / pass/ the coming exam/ works/ hard /./ 2. / why / liked / Mr. Brown/ asked / me/ I / English /./ IX. Write a short passage (60-80 words) about your favorite food or drink. (1 pt) – The end – ENGLISH SPEAKING TEST 9 TEST 1 PART I. QUICK RESPONSE 1. What’s your name? 2. Which class and school are you in? 3. What do you usually do in your free time? 4. How much time do you spend on helping your family each day? 5. Can you name some household chores that you like/ dislike doing? PART 2: TALK ABOUT YOUR FAVOURITE FOOD OR DRINK TEST 2 PART I. QUICK RESPONSE 1. What’s your name? 2. Which class and school are you in? 3. Do you like going on holiday? 4. Where would you like to have a holiday? 5. What will you do if you have a holiday? PART 2: TALK ABOUT A PLACE OF INTEREST TEST 3 PART I. QUICK RESPONSE 1. What’s your name? 2. Which class and school are you in? 3. Which school subject do you like most ? 4. How much time do you often spend on your favourite subject each day? 5. What can you do to study the subject better ? PART 2 : TALK ABOUT BENEFITS OF LEARNING ENGLISH TEST 4 PART I. QUICK RESPONSE 1. What’s your name? 2. Which class and school are you in? 3. What do you often do at weekends? 4. Do you like watching films or reading stories? 5. How much time do you often spend on watching films or reading stories? PART 2: TALK ABOUT YOUR DREAM JOB TEST 5 PART I. QUICK RESPONSE 1. What’s your name? 2. Which class and school are you in? 3. Do you like playing sports? 4. What sport do you like most? 5. How much time do you spend on playing sports every day? PART 2: TALK ABOUT YOUR FAVOURITE SPORT OR GAME